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RAK M.Sc.Nursing Entrance Exam 2018 Question Paper

   
1.The nurse is caring for a patient who is bleeding from the puncture wound. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to control the arterial bleeding?
  1. Pressure at the puncture site
  2. Application of a tourniquet
  3. Pressure point massage
  4. Pressure dressing

2. Which of the following actions should be taken first for a patient who is found with hyperthermia?
  1. Undress the patient
  2. Use tepid water as a mist spray
  3. Remove patient from the hot environment
  4. Place patient in continual breeze from electric fans

3. Which of the following would the nurse reinforce after a teaching session as the most important lifestyle modification for the patient who is aged 59, 5' 11". Weighs 280 pounds, and is hypertensive ?
  1. Reduce weight
  2. Restrict salt intake
  3. Increase potassium intake
  4. Decrease alcohol intake

4. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize when taking care of a patient with a platelet count of 23000/mm3 ?
  1. Request an order for an anticoagulant
  2. Protect the patient from injury
  3. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids
  4. No action is necessary

5. How would the nurse record smoking history on a patient who has smoked 2.5 packs of cigarettes per day for 10 years?
  1. Patient has smoked cigarettes for 10 years
  2. Patient smokes 2.5 packs of cigarettes per day
  3. Patient has a 12.5 pack-year smoking history
  4. Patient has a 25 pack-year smoking history

6. Which term should be used to document the musical sounds generated by airflow through narrowed airways ?
  1. Crackles
  2. Wheezes
  3. Friction rub
  4. Stridor

7. Which laboratory result should alert the nurse to perform further assessment on a patient admitted with respiratory distress ?
  1. PaCO2  < 50 mm Hg
  2. HCO3  < 27  mEq/L
  3. PaO2 < 90 mm Hg
  4. SPO2 < than 90%

8. After a laryngectomy, which of the following assessments  takes priority ?
  1. Airway patency
  2. Nutritional status
  3. Lung sounds
  4. Patient acceptance of surgery

9. Which of the following assessment findings does the nurse expect  in a patient with emphysema ?
  1. Purulent sputum
  2. Diminished breath sounds
  3. Generalized edema
  4. Dull chest pain

10. A patient with shortness of breath is being tested for lung cancer this diagnostic will be most conclusive ?
  1. Chest X-ray
  2. MRI
  3. Sputum culture
  4. Biopsy

11. The nurse is collecting data on a patient with a ruptured appendix is in pain. Where would the nurse expect the patient's pain to located ?
  1. Right upper quadrant
  2. Right lower quadrant
  3. Left upper quadrant
  4. Left lower quadrant

12. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a parenteral  nutrition infusion. The nurse should perform blood glucose monitoring every 6 hours to detect which complication ?
  1. Hyponatremia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Hypocalcemia
  4. Hyperglycemia

13. The nurse is reinforcing patient teaching. Which of the following foods would the nurse reinforce that the patient with ulcerative colitis is to avoid ?
  1. Fresh fruits
  2. White bread
  3. Sweet dessert
  4. Meat

14. Which of these patients dietary habits does the nurse understand may increase the risk for development of colon cancer ?
  1. High fat, low fiber intake
  2. High intake of milk and milk products
  3. Low meat and protein intake
  4. Low fat, high carbohydrate intake

15. The nurse is planning care for a patient with cirrhosis. For which  condition would the nurse place the patient on bleeding precautions ?
  1. Encephalopathy
  2. Low vitamin K
  3. Elevated liver enzymes
  4. Hepatorenal syndrome

16. The nurse is collecting data for a patient who develops jaundice and dark amber-colored urine. The nurse recognizes that which of the following is most likely the cause of these manifestations ?
  1. Encephalopathy
  2. Pancreatitis
  3. Bile duct obstruction
  4. Cholecystitis

17. The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to obtain the most accurate assessment of fluid balance for the patient ?
  1. Document voiding pattern
  2. Obtain daily weight
  3. Review laboratory studies
  4. Observe skin turgor

18. The nurse is checking patency of a new right arm AV fistula. What action does the nurse use to do this ?
  1. Auscultate the right brachial pulse
  2. Auscultate and palpate the right radial pulse
  3. Measure blood pressure in the right arm
  4. Palpate for thrill and auscultate bruit over the fistula

19. A patient is scheduled for a right total hip replacement. The nurse should teach which of the following postoperative leg positions ?
  1. Maintain legs in adduction
  2. Maintain legs in abduction
  3. Maintain internal leg rotation
  4. Maintain more than 90 degree hip flexion

20. The nurse is caring for a patient immediately after a below-knee amputation. Which of these assessments should the nurse consider a PRIORITY ?
  1. Sacral edema
  2. Mobility
  3. Stump dressings
  4. Blood sugar level

21.  Which of the following is a symptom of increasing intracranial pressure that should be reported immediately to the health care provider ?
  1. Constricted pupils
  2. Decreased level of consciousness
  3. Narrowing pulse pressure
  4. Bradypnea

22. How soon after symptom onset must a person who has had a stroke receive thrombolytic treatment ?
  1. 30 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 2 hours
  4. 4 - 5 hours

23. When caring for a patient admitted with Guillain-Barre syndrome, which nursing diagnosis should take priority ?
  1. Anxiety
  2. Imbalanced nutrition
  3. Impaired gas exchange
  4. Impaired mobility

24. A lethargic patient who has fever, vomiting, headache and  the nurse has to prepare him for which one of the following procedure ?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Lumbar puncture
  3. CAT scan
  4. Ultrasound scan

25. When caring for a patient after cardiac catheterization, which  nursing care action is most  important ?
  1. Administer oxygen
  2. Provide rest
  3. Check the ECG every 5 to 15 minutes
  4. Check a pulse distal to the insertion site

26. The nurse is caring for a patient who had a splenectomy in the immediate post-operative period, for which complication should the nurse specifically alert in this patient ?
  1. Infection
  2. Peritonitis
  3. Intestinal obstruction
  4. Abdominal distention

27. A patient is admitted with suspected atelectasis. Which clinical indication can the nurse expect to identify when assessing the patient ?
  1. Slow, deep respirations
  2. Diminished breath sounds
  3. A dry, unproductive cough
  4. Normal oral temperature

28. What nursing action will most help a patient obtain maximum benefits  after postural drainage?
  1. Administer PRN oxygen
  2. Place the patient in a sitting position
  3. Encourage the patient to cough deeply
  4. Encourage the patient to rest for 30 minutes

29. The nurse administers oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula to a patient with emphysema. For which clinical indicators should the nurse closely observe the patient ?
  1. Cyanosis and lethargy
  2. Anxiety and tachycardia
  3. Drowsiness and decreased respirations
  4. Hyperemia and increased respirations

30. The nurse is administering oxygen to a patient with chest pain who is restless. What is the method of oxygen administration that is least likely to increase apprehension in the patient ?
  1. Cannula
  2. Catheter
  3. Venturi mask
  4. Rebreather mask

31. which medical diagnosis can the nurse expect when collecting a health history from a patient who  is scheduled for an antrectomy ?
Cataract
Gastric ulcers
Otosclerosis
Trigeminal neuralgia

32. When considering a patient's symptoms, how should the nurse categorize a patient's complaint of tinnitus ?
Objective
Subjective
Prodromal
Functional

33. A patient is scheduled for a hemorrhoidectomy. The nurse should observe the patient for the presence for which common clinical indicator associated with hemorrhoids  ?
Purities
Flatulence
Anal stenosis
Rectal bleeding

34. A patient with spinal cord injury has paraplegia. The assesses for which major problem the patient may experience early in the recovery period ?
Bladder control
Nutritional intake
Quadriceps setting
Use of aids for ambulation

35. The nurse administers Levadopa to a patient with Parkinson's disease. Which therapeutic effect does the nurse expect the medication to produce ?
Increase in acetylcholine production
Replacement of the neurotransmitter in brain
Regeneration of injured thalamic cells
Improvement in myelination of neurons

36. When receiving hemodialysis, the complication of the removal of too much sodium may occur. Therefore, the nurse should assess the patient for :
Chvostek's sign
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Muscle cramps
Increased temperature

37. Which is the best nursing intervention to meet the needs of individuals who demonstrate obsessive compulsive behavior ?
Restricting their movements
Calling attention to their behavior
Keeping them busy to distract them
Supporting but limiting their behavior

38. A hospitalized patient, diagnosed with a borderline personality disorder, consistently breaks the unit rules. This behavior should be confronted because it will help the patient:
Control anger
Become more self-aware
Reduce anxiety
Set  realistic goals

39. The nurse teaches patients that they should follow their diet restrictions while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. What will develop if they do not follow these restrictions ?
Occipital headaches
Generalized urticaria
Severe muscle spasms
Sudden drop in blood pressure

40. a patient is receiving lithium carbonate. While this medication is being administered, it is important that the nurse
  1. Restricts the patient's daily sodium intake
  2. Test the patient's urine specific gravity weekly
  3. Monitor the patient's drug blood level regularly
  4. Withhold the patient's other medications for one week

41. The nurse understands that neuroleptics are the drugs of choice to relieve symptoms of  :
  1. Psychosis
  2. Depression
  3. Excessive activity
  4. Narcotic withdrawal

42. A patient is to be discharged from a psychiatric unit with orders for haloperidol therapy. As part of the teaching plan concerning this medication the nurse should teach the patient to avoid :
  1. Driving at night
  2. Staying in the sun
  3. Ingesting aged cheeses
  4. Taking medications containing aspirin

43. What is the most important information the nurse should teach to prevent relapse in a patient with psychiatric illness ?
  1. Develop a close support system
  2. Create a stress-free environment
  3. Refrain from activities that cause anxiety
  4. Follow the prescribed medication regimen

44. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAO inhibitor) is prescribed. What should the nurse teach the patient to avoid ?
  1. Prolonged exposure to the sun
  2. Ingesting wines and aged cheeses
  3. Engaging in active physical exercise
  4. Over the counter NSAID medications

45. Patients with the diagnosis of bipolar disorders, manic episode, most likely will exhibit signs of :
  1. Passivity
  2. Dysphoria
  3. Anhedonia
  4. Grandiosity

46. In Maslow's hierarchy of physiologic needs, the human  need of greatest priority is :
  1. Love
  2. Elimination
  3. Nutrition
  4. Oxygen

47. The process of assessing patients who cue to emergency department and determining the management priorities is called :
  1. Mirage
  2. Triage
  3. Lavage
  4. Collage

48. Glylcolated hemoglobin  (HbA1C) tests, mean glucose levels :
  1. Over 2 days
  2. Over 15 days
  3. Over 90 days
  4. Over 30 days

49. What is the usual site of intramuscular injection a nurse will choose in an adult for Z - track technique ?
  1. Deltoid
  2. Rectus femoris
  3. Ventrogluteal
  4. Vastus lateralis

50. How do you know that intercostal drainage tube is functioning ?
  1. Continuous bubbling in water seal bottle
  2. Continuous bubbling from suction tube
  3. Oscillation of water column in drainage bottle
  4. No bubbling in the drainage bottle

51. The statement of beliefs and ideas which are considered to be true are known as :
  1. Hypothesis
  2. Assumption
  3. Conceptual definition
  4. Operational definition

52. A literature review is :
  1. Everything that is known about subject
  2. An analytical summary of research findings
  3. All approved data on a research topic
  4. A compilation of all positive results of research

53. The literature review should occur :
  1. Near the end of research process
  2. Shortly before the analysis of the problem
  3. Early in the research process
  4. None of the above

54. Which of the following is not a method of data collection ?
  1. Interviews
  2. Experiments
  3. Questionnaires
  4. Observations

55. Which of the following is the formula for range ?
  1. H + L
  2. L x H
  3. L - H
  4. H - L

56. The measure of central tendency that represents the score most occurring in a distribution of scores is called :
  1. Mean
  2. Mode
  3. Variable
  4. Median

57. Which of the following is an example of dichotomous variable ?
  1. Age
  2. Gender
  3. Educational status
  4. Occupational

58. Identify the mode of the following values :
3
8
6
7

59. Which of the following scale of measurement has an absolute zero ?
  1. Nominal
  2. Ordinal
  3. Interval
  4. Ratio

60. A careful appraisal of the strengths and weaknesses of the study is :
  1. Research proposal
  2. Action research
  3. Research critique
  4. Evidence based practice

61. What is the normal color of amniotic fluid when the bag of waters ruptures ?
  1. As like water
  2. Bluish
  3. Brownish
  4. Yellowish

62. Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan about the method to prevent breast engorgement in post-partum period ?
  1. Breastfeeding the neonate at frequent intervals
  2. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours
  3. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on the first day
  4. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields

63. Postpartum hemorrhage is loss of blood which is more than :
  1. 800 ml
  2. 100 ml
  3. 500 ml
  4. 900 ml

64. According to WHO, when should the mother start breast feeding the infant ?
  1. Within 30 minutes after birth
  2. Within 18 hours after birth
  3. After infants condition stabilizes
  4. Within a day after birth

65. The indication of forceps delivery is :
  1. Delay in first stage due to hypotonic uterine contraction
  2. Delay in first stage due to hypertonic uterine contraction
  3. Delay in second stage due to hypotonic uterine contraction
  4. Delay I second stage due to hypertonic uterine contraction

66. What is the positive sign of pregnancy ?
  1. Frequency of micturition
  2. Vomiting
  3. Braxton Hick's contractions
  4. Foetal outline by sonography

67. Which gland is responsible for initiating the menstrual  cycle ?
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Anterior pituitary gland (APG)
  3. Posterior Pituitary Gland (PPG)
  4. Ovaries

68. What should the nurse answer if the mother asks, "What does it mean if her maternal serum alpha protein is 35 ng/ml  ?
It is abnormal
It is not clear
35 ng/ml indicates chromosomal aberration
35 ng/ml indicates neural defect

69. During a routine prenatal visit, a pregnant patient reports heartburn. To minimize her discomfort,  the nurse should include which suggestion in the plan of care ?
Drink more citrus juice
Eat small, frequent meals
Limit fluid intake sharply
Take sodium bicarbonate

70. When is the best time to achieve pregnancy ?
Midway between 7th  and  8th  day of ovulation
Immediately after starting of menses
14 days after the beginning of the next period
14 days before the next period is expected

71. After determining that a pregnant patient is Rh-negative, gynecologist orders an indirect Coomb's test. What is the purpose of performing this test in a pregnant patient ?
To determine the fetal blood Rh factor
To determine the maternal blood Rh factor
To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh-negative factor
To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh-positive factor

72. To determine fetal position using Leopold's maneuvers, the first maneuver is to :
Determine degree of moulding
Determine the position of fetus
Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus
Locate the back, arms and legs

73. What is the WHO criterion for minimum sperm count in normal semen ?
60 million
15 million
20 million
30 million

74. The uterus has already risen out of the pelvis and is extending farther into abdominal area at about the  :
8th week of pregnancy
10 the week of pregnancy
12th week of pregnancy
18th week of pregnancy

75. Seven weeks after the conception the growing structure inside a uterus is called :
Zygote
Embryo
Fetus
Neonate

76. Which of the following doses of Rh immune globulin RhoGAM is appropriate for a pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation ?
0.6 mcg in a sensitized patient
50 mcg in an unsensitized patient
30 mcg in a sensitized patient
300 mcg in an unsensitized patient

77. True labor is characterized by :
Effacement and dilatation of cervix
Painful uterine contraction
Suprapubic discomfort at regular interval
All of the above

78. Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant patients in the first trimester of pregnancy ?
Breast abscess
Metabolic acidosis
Physiologic anemia
Respiratory alkalosis

79. Major complication in third stage of labor is :
Perineal injuries
PPH
Subinvolution
Uterine rupture

80. Oligohydramnios is a condition when  amniotic fluid is less than :
75 ml at term
100 ml at term
150 ml at term
200 ml at term

81. Postpartum hemorrhage is caused by :
Atonic uterus
Blood coagulopathy
Traumatic
All of the above

82. The danger of convulsion in a woman with pre-eclamptic toxemia  ends :
Soon after delivery
12 hours after delivery
24 hours after delivery
48 hours after delivery

83. The most common complication in low birth weight infant is :
Respiratory distress
Mucus damage
Brain damage
Haemorrhage

84. The shape of brim of gynaecoid pelvis is :
Flat
Oval
Round
Triangular

85. Physiological anemia during pregnancy is a result of
a.    Increased blood volume
b.    Decreased dietary intake
c.    Decreased erythropoiesis after first trimester
d.    Increased detoxification demands on  mother's liver

86. The most important, predisposing causes of puerperal infections are :
Hemorrhage and trauma during labour
Malnutrition and anemia during pregnancy
Toxaemia and retention of placenta
Streptococcus present in the birth canal and trauma during labour

87. Gestation sac can be seen in ultrasound at :
Six weeks gestation
Eight weeks gestation
Ten weeks gestation
Five weeks gestation

88. Major side effect of oxytocin is :
Diuresis
Hypertension
Uterine hyper stimulation
Uterine atony

89. Tocolytic agents are used to :
Enhance the preterm labor
Suppress the preterm labor
Enhance the normal labor
Suppress the normal labor

90. pH of vagina during pregnancy :
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Sometime acidic and sometime basic

91. softening of the cervix during pregnancy is termed as :
Jacqemier's sign
Osiander's sign
Goodell's sign
Hegar's sign

92. a female who has given birth to one viable child is termed as
Primipara
Multipara
Nulligravida
Primigravida

93. Partograph is first planned by
Robert
Jacobson
Friedman
Chadwick

94. Commonest causes of breech presentation is :
Hydrocephalus
Prematurity
Multiparity
Hydramnios

95. Definitive treatment of placenta praevia includes :
Bed rest
Supplementary haematinics
Use of tocolytics
Caesarian section

96. Elderly primigravida is defined as :
Women having first pregnancy above the age  of 25
Women having pregnancy above the age of 30
Women having their first pregnancy below the age of 18
Women having the first pregnancy above the age of 35

97. There are several differences between a leader and manager. The manager does not have :
Formal authority
Subordinates
Followers
Responsibility

98. The nurse manager has several roles and functions to play. Which of the functions given below is the LEAST important ?
Decision making
Monitoring and evaluation of strategies
Effective leading
Manipulating people

99. The nurse manager requires several skills to be  effective in her work. Which of the following skills is the most important skill to be an effective nurse manager at all levels of management ?
Technical skills
Conceptual skills
Human skills
Supervisory skills

100. Leadership is important for the success of any organization. The following is an important element in leadership EXCEPT :
There must be a leader and followers in the organization
The leader is usually autocratic
There is unequal distribution of power between the leader and the followers
Leaders can influence the behavior of their followers

101. A public health nurse in the health centre behaves like a dictator and uses position power to get her work done. She makes all the decisions and does not involve her subordinates in decision making. Which style of leadership BEST describes her ?
Autocratic
Democratic
Bureaucratic
Laissez faire

102. Supervision an important function of management. Which of the following is not a characteristic of supervision ?
It can be seen as overseeing someone's work
Ensures that subordinates carry out their activities effectively
Acting as a mentor to the subordinates
Is always related to checking of subordinate's work

107. The number of people directly reporting to any one manager or officer is known as :
Line organization
Scalar chain
Span of control
Staffing

108. Who has given 14 principles of management ?
Daniel frud
Mary Follet
Henry Fayol *
Florence Nightingale

109. An answerability of a subordinate to his/her superior for performance of the assigned tasks is known as :
Responsibility
Accountability
Authority
Delegation

110. Which of the following is not the principle of organization :
Hierarchy
Delegation
Span of control
Pervasiveness

111. The nurse planning care for a two year old who has nephrotic syndrome and is in remission. What type of diet would the nurse plan to feed this child ?
High protein low caloric
High caloric low protein
Low sodium, low fat
Regular diet no added sugar

112. A clinic nurse is assessing a child for dehydration. The nurse determines that the child is moderately dehydrated if which symptom is noted on assessment ?
Flat fontanels
Moist mucous membranes
Pale skin color
Oliguria

113. A physician orders I/V potassium for a child with hypertonic dehydration. A nurse performs which of the following highest priority assessment before administering the potassium ?
Taking temperature
Taking blood pressure
Obtaining a weight
Checking amount of urine output

114. A 2 year old child is admitted to a burn unit with partial and full thickness burns over 35% of the body. After admission assessment and review of physician's order, the priority intervention focuses on :
a.    Sedating with morphine sulphate
b.    Restricting I/V fluids
c.    Inserting nasogastric tube
d.    Inserting a foley catheter

115. A paediatric nurse is assigned to care for a child with a diagnosis of Wilm's tumor. In planning care for the child, the nurse understands that this tumor is  :
a.    An abdominal tumor
b.    A renal tumor
c.    A brain tumor
d.    A bone tumor

116. A nurse is performing an assessment on a 10 year old suspected of having Hodgkin's disease. The nurse understands that which data are most characteristic of this disease :
a.    Painful, enlarged inguinal lymph nodes
b.    Fever and malaise
c.    Painless, firm, movable adenopathy in cervical area
d.    Anorexia and weight loss

117. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to a five year old. The nurse administers this vaccine
a.    Intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh
b.    Intra muscularly in deltoid muscle
c.    Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm
d.    Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle

118. A child with tetralogy of Fallot's Tetralogy and history of severe hypoxic episodes is to be admitted to paediatric unit. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to have at the bedside ?
a.    Morphine sulphate in a syringe ready to administer
b.    Oxygen tubing and gauze plugged in
c.    Blood pressure cuff and stethoscope
d.    Suction tubing and equipment

119. The clinical manifestations  of nephrotic syndrome include which of the following ?
a.    Haematuria
b.    Massive proteinemia
c.    Increased serum albumin
d.    Weight loss

120. While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a 5 yr old, the nurse palpates for a pulse. Which of the following sites is the best for checking the pulse during CPR in a five year old child ?
a.    Femoral
b.    Carotid
c.    Radial
d.    Brachial

121. Which of the following is a major risk factor for having a low-birth-weight-baby ?
a.    Heredity
b.    Smoking
c.    Drugs used during pregnancy
d.    Poor nutrition

122. The nurse is assessing a child's skeletal traction and notices that the weights are on the floor. Which of the following would the nurse do next ?
a.    Raise the weight so that child can move up in bed
b.    Notify physician immediately
c.    Put the foot of the bed on blocks
d.    Move the child

123. A six year old child is admitted to the hospital for heart surgery to repair tetralogy of Fallot, the nurse should anticipate that when the child goes home the parents will most likely have a concern about :
a.    Allowing the child to lead a normal active life
b.    Persuading the child to get enough rest
c.    Having the child develop post-operative complications
d.    Having the child out of the school for a month

124. A child is to receive dexamethasone (Decadron) intravenously in the ordered dosage of 7.6 mg. the drug concentration in the vial in 4mg/ml. which of the following amount would the nurse administer ?
a.    0.05 ml
b.    0.72 ml
c.    1.9 ml
d.    3.8 ml

125. Which of the following action would the nurse anticipate using when caring for a term neonate diagnosed with transient tachypnea at 2 hours after birth ?
a.    Monitoring the neonate's color and cry every four hours
b.    Feeding the neonate with a bottle every three hours
c.    Obtaining extra corporeal membrane oxygenation equipment
d.    Providing warm, humidified oxygen in a warm environment

126. A child is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnea related to bronchospasm. The nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions ?
a.    High Fowler's
b.    Side-lying
c.    Prone
d.    Supine

127. Signs and symptoms of which of the following should be priority when caring for a newly delivered term neonate diagnosed as small for gestational age ?
a.    Iron deficiency anemia
b.    Birth asphyxia
c.    Persistent pulmonary  hypertension
d.    Hyperglycemia

128. Which of the following would first alert the nurse that a child is hemorrhaging after tonsillectomy ?
a.    Mouth breathing
b.    Frequent swallowing
c.    Requests for drinks
d.    Increased pulse rate

129. A child is to receive 500 ml of an I/V solution over 12 hours via tubing that delivers micro drips at 60 drops/ml. the nurse would infuse solution at which of the following rates?
a.    42 drops / minute
b.    48 drops / minute
c.    63 drops /minute
d.    84 drops / minute

130. After a child returns from postanaesthesia care unit after surgery, which of the following would the nurse assess first ?
a.    The intravenous fluid access site
b.    The child's level of pain
c.    Surgical site dressing
d.    Functioning of the nasogastric tube

131. An infant with congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital. Which goal has the highest priority when planning nursing care ?
a.    The infant will maintain an adequate fluid balance
b.    The infant will have digoxin at the bedside
c.    Skin integrity will be assessed
d.    Administer medication on time

132. A six year old is newly diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL). During assessment, which of the following signs and symptoms would you expect ?
a.    Fever, pallor, bone and joint pain
b.    Fever, ruddy complexion, petechiae
c.    Abdominal pain, cystitis, swollen joint
d.    Enlarged lymph nodes, low-grade fever, night sweat

133. The nurse assesses a six months old child during well-baby-clinic. The nurse makes all the following observations. Which of the following assessments made by the nurse is an area of concern indicating a need for further evaluation ?
a.    Absence of moro reflex
b.    Closed posterior fontanel
c.    Three pounds weight gain in two months
d.    Moderate head lag when pulled to sitting position

134.Wwhich of the following is a zoonotic  disease ?
a.    A chikengunea
b.    Malaria
c.    Rabies
d.    Aids

135. Which of the following is an international agency which assists in any programme that benefits child health most ?
a.    UNO
b.    WHO
c.    UNICEF
d.    Red cross

136. Population covered by a sub Centre in hilly area :
a.    5000 population
b.    3000 population
c.    10000 population
d.    30000 population

137. Which of the following helps in prevention of  neural tube defect in fetus ?
a.    Vitamin A
b.    Vitamin C
c.    Vitamin E
d.    Folic acid

138. Expected weight of one year old child, when the birth weight is 3.5 Kg is :-
a.    7 Kg.
b.    6 Kg.
c.    9.5 Kg.
d.    10.5 Kg.

139. Which of the following is an anti-retro-viral agent ?
a.    Acyclovir
b.    Rifampicin
c.    Nevirapine
d.    Cifran

140. Outbreak of disease in the community in excess the normal  expectation is :
a.    Epidemic
b.    Pandemic
c.    Sporadic
d.    Endemic

141. In demographic stages "when birth rate begins to decline and death rate further decreases" it is said to be :
a.    High stationary stage
b.    Early expansion stage
c.    Late expansion stage
d.    Low stationary stage

142. Glucose is added to antidiarrheal solution because :
a.    it tastes sweet
b.    increases absorption of amino acids
c.    increases absorption of sodium
d.    all of the above

143. If complicating pregnancy, which of the following diseases  may result in serious teratogenic defect in the offspring ?
a.    Rubella
b.    Rubeola
c.    Variola
d.    Varicella

144. The health education in a group of alcoholic people should be able to :
a.    Teach the bad effects of alcoholism
b.    Change their behavior
c.    Inform about constituents of alcohol
d.    Create awareness among them about family crisis

145. During cholera outbreak, the best emergency sanitation measures to be adopted will be :
a.    Chemoprophylaxis
b.    Mass vaccination
c.    Disinfection of stool
d.    Provision of chlorinated water

146. The effective preventive measures for AIDS is use of condom, which provides protection against :
a.    Inhibition of sperm action
b.    Spermicidal action
c.    Agglutination of spermatozoa
d.    All of the above

The Mean, Median and Mode are the arithmetic average of a data set. This is found by adding the numbers in a data set and dividing by how many numbers there are. The median is the middle number in a data set when the numbers are listed in either ascending or descending order. The mode is the value that occurs the most often in a data set, and the range is the difference between the highest and lowest values in a data set.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Question: Find the mean, median, mode, and range for the following list of values: 13, 18, 13, 14, 13, 16, 14, 21, 13
Solution:
Given sequence: 13, 18, 13, 14, 13, 16, 14, 21, 13
The mean is the usual average, so:
13+18+13+14+13+16+14+21+139=15
Note that the mean isn’t a value from the original list. This is a common result. You should not assume that your mean will be one of your original numbers.
The median is the middle value, so to rewrite the list in order:
13, 13, 13, 13, 14, 14, 16, 18, 21
There are nine numbers in the list, so the middle one will be
9+12=102=5
= 5th number, So the median is 14.
The mode is the number that is repeated more often than any other, so 13 is the mode.
The largest value in the list is 21, and the smallest is 13, so the range is 21 – 13 = 8.
mean: 15
median: 14
mode: 13
range: 8
maternal-serum-alpha-fetoprotein
Jaquemier's sign :- A purplish discoloration of the mucous membrane of the vagina that occurs early in pregnancy

Osiander sign : - An obsolete term that formerly dignified the finding of a vaginal pulsation that mirrors the maternal heart rate as an early sign of pregnancy.

Goodell’s sign : - refers to a softening of the cervix indicative of pregnancy appearing around six weeks into gestation. Over the course of the pregnancy, the cervix will soften considerably before it starts to thin, making it possible to dilate the uterine opening for delivery.

Hegar's sign : - Softening and compressibility of the lower segment of the uterus in early pregnancy (about the seventh week) that, on bimanual examination, is palpated by the finger in the vagina as though the neck and body of the uterus were separated, or connected by only a thin band of tissue